a sad note. Smith's wife called for police to intervene in their domestic issue, , but refused to file any criminal charges. Instead, she filed for divorce. if no charges were ever filed, does this constitute spouse abuse? The ethical answer is yes. but is the legal answer, yes? and if she refused to file any charges, can you then say legally, there were no allegations/charges of abuse?
this is where I have the biggest problem understanding abuse allegations. if the victim refuses to file any charges, did an abuse legally happen?